Fanāʾ fi’l …?

al-Mubahathat

It’s not clear to me that the doctrine, taken in a robust sense, is even coherent. To see why, consider the following argument, which ultimately comes from the Shaykh (though in a different context). The version of it I make use of here is from II.5.243 of the Hikmat al-Ishrāq, where Suhrawardi writes:

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